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The "Principle of Access to Information" (PAI) expressed in the legislation of many countries — usually countries with some "Access to Information Act" or freedom of information laws —, apply to any law document or "obligation rule records", stated by the State. In some countries the obligation of law-publicity and no-payment for information is reinforced by the Ignorantia juris non excusat.

The question here is

How to use PAI for (legally) demonstrate that any other norm or document, citaed by a law document, must be submited also to the PAI?

This situation is similar to the "contamination by use" of a share-alike licenced document (ex. CC by-sa), but here the mechanism is "contamination by citation".


Notes and examples:

This is a question for use with any democratic country where we can start with the hypothesis that “country's law has no copyright”. So, the question is: how to (!?) convince citizens, the government and the court that "any document cited by law also has no copyright"?

Examples where the problem was recognized by court:

Example where the problem (of no oficial answering of this question) exist:

  • are you asking for precedent? or an example of how to display/enforce it? i know this is the battle brewing between municode and u.s. localities that use it to display government documents – albert Jul 10 '15 at 18:45
  • @albert thanks, two issues... (1) yes I'm looking for precedent or any other kind of "juri decision" or "law change", in response to the "contamination by citation". (2) I do not known Municode Corporation, but seems a good case, where govern transferred publishing rights to municode ... them municode enforced citizens to pay for the "contaminated documents" (supposing that in USA documents cited by law must be free and Open Access)... do you have a link for it? – Peter Krauss Jul 10 '15 at 19:39
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    @Joe, thanks! Carl sent me fast comments. He have a very interesting video and article at public.resource.org/edicts ... A good summary of Carl's position, about the general subject of this kind of question, is “the law has no copyright”. – Peter Krauss Jul 14 '15 at 15:16
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    Hum... even with a bounty, no answer... so, let's do a proposal :-) github.com/okfn/opendefinition/issues/114 – Peter Krauss Jul 16 '15 at 2:44
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    "In any democratic country we can start with the hypothesis that “country's law has no copyright”." I think this is a major problem to begin with - it's simply not the case that this is always true for all countries (or all parts of all countries). – Andrew Jul 16 '15 at 11:11

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